Modern Systems Analysis and Design, 3/e
Jeffrey A. Hoffer, Joey F. George, Joseph S. Valacich

Multiple Choice Questions   from the Companion Website (http://myphlip.pearsoncmg.com/cw/mplistres1.cfm?vbookid=291)
Chapter 1: The Systems Development Environment

1.  Which of the following is not a key information system component?
	a) design stability 
	b) data 
	c) data flows 
	d) processing logic 

2.  Which of the following focus on output and processing logic?
	a) data models 
	b) data-oriented approach 
	c) systems development approach 
	d) process-oriented approach 

3.  A customer sending in a payment best represents:
	a) data 
	b) data flow 
	c) information 
	d) processing logic 

4.  Describing the steps for computing income tax exemplifies:
	a) data 
	b) data flow 
	c) information 
	d) processing logic 

5.  Product number, quantity in stock, and the supplier's name are examples of:
	a) data 
	b) data flow 
	c) information 
	d) processing logic 

6.  Which of the following is not one of the four major classes of information systems?
	a) decision support system 
	b) collaboration system 
	c) management information system 
	d) expert system 

7.  Which of the following replicates the decision-making process rather than manipulates information?
	a) management replication system 
	b) management information system 
	c) expert system 
	d) decision support system 

8.  Drawing on diverse yet predictable data resources to aggregate and summarize data is characteristic of:
	a) management information systems 
	b) decision support systems 
	c) expert systems 
	d) transaction processing systems 

9.  True statements regarding the SDLC include each of the following except:
	a) Every organization uses a slightly different life cycle model. 
	b) The life cycle is sequential. 
	c) In the systems development life cycle, it is possible to complete some activities in one phase in parallel with some activities of another phase. 
	d) Sometimes the life cycle is iterative. 

10.  Generating alternative initial designs would most likely be done during:
	a) design 
	b) initiation and planning 
	c) implementation 
	d) analysis 

11.  During the analysis phase, the project team:
	a) describes the functional features of the system chosen for development in the previous phase 
	b) studies the organization's current procedures and the information systems used to perform organizational tasks 
	c) determines the scope of the proposed systems and produces a specific plan for the proposed project 
	d) codes, tests, and installs the new system 

12.  During logical design, the project team:
	a) describes the functional features of the system chosen for development in the previous phase 
	b) studies the organization's current procedures and the information systems used to perform organizational tasks 
	c) determines the scope of the proposed systems and produces a specific plan for the proposed project 
	d) codes, tests, and installs the new system 

13.  During implementation, the project team:
	a) concentrates on the business aspects of the system and tends to be oriented to a high level of specificity 
	b) studies the organization's current procedures and the information systems used to perform organizational tasks 
	c) determines the scope of the proposed systems and produces a specific plan for the proposed project 
	d) codes, tests, and installs the new system 

14.  Technical, detailed specifications of all system elements are the product of:
	a) logical design 
	b) physical design 
	c) analysis 
	d) implementation 

15.  Which of the following is the property that occurs when entity types or object classes are arranged in a hierarchy and each entity type or object class assumes the attributes and methods of its ancestors?
	a) polymorphism 
	b) encapsulation 
	c) decomposition 
	d) inheritance 

Chapter 3: Managing the Information Systems Project 1. Which of the following determines if the information system makes sense for the organization from an economic and operational standpoint? a) a feasibility study b) a statement of work c) a system service request d) a resource schedule 2. Designing and sequencing activities to attain project goals best describes the: a) customer relations project manager activity b) conflict management project manager activity c) team management project manager activity d) technical problem solving project manager activity 3. Skills required for the management activity include: a) communication; liaison between management, users, and developers; assigning activities; monitoring progress b) defining and sequencing activities; communicating expectations; assigning resources to activities; monitoring outcomes c) communication within and between teams; peer evaluations; conflict resolution; team building; self-management d) problem solving; smoothing out personality differences; compromising; goal setting 4. Skills required for the team management activity include: a) communication; liaison between management, users, and developers; assigning activities; monitoring progress b) defining and sequencing activities; communicating expectations; assigning resources to activities; monitoring outcomes c) communication within and between teams; peer evaluations; conflict resolution; team building; self-management d) problem solving; smoothing out personality differences; compromising; goal setting 5. The establishing management procedures activity involves: a) defining the activities required to organize the initiation team while it is working to define the project's scope b) developing team communication and reporting procedures, job assignments and roles, project change procedures, and determining how project funding and billing will be handled c) understanding the content and complexity of the project, identifying and documenting general alternative solutions for the current business problem or opportunity, and assessing the feasibility of each alternative solution and choosing which to consider during subsequent SDLC phases d) using the information on tasks and resource availability to assign time estimates to each activity in the work breakdown structure 6. Which of the following is the second phase of the project management process, which focuses on defining clear, discrete activities and the work needed to complete each activity within a single project? a) project execution b) project initiation c) project planning d) project closedown 7. The process of dividing the project into manageable tasks and logically ordering them to ensure a smooth evolution between tasks best defines: a) work breakdown structure b) decomposition c) task identification d) activity slicing 8. The describing project scope, alternatives, and feasibility activity involves: a) defining the activities required to organize the initiation team while it is working to define the project's scope b) developing team communication and reporting procedures, job assignments and roles, project change procedures, and determining how project funding and billing will be handled c) understanding the content and complexity of the project, identifying and documenting general alternative solutions for the current business problem or opportunity, and assessing the feasibility of each alternative solution and choosing which to consider during subsequent SDLC phases d) using the information on tasks and resource availability to assign time estimates to each activity in the work breakdown structure 9. A graphical representation of a project that shows each task activity as a horizontal bar whose length is proportional to its time for completion best describes: a) work breakdown structure b) decision tree c) PERT chart d) Gantt chart 10. The developing a preliminary schedule activity involves: a) defining the activities required to organize the initiation team while it is working to define the project's scope b) developing team communication and reporting procedures, job assignments and roles, project change procedures, and determining how project funding and billing will be handled c) understanding the content and complexity of the project, identifying and documenting general alternative solutions for the current business problem or opportunity, and assessing the feasibility of each alternative solution and choosing which to consider during subsequent SDLC phases d) using the information on tasks and resource availability to assign time estimates to each activity in the work breakdown structure 11. Which of the following is the third phase of the project management process in which the plans created in the prior phases are put into action? a) project execution b) project closedown c) project implementation d) project initiation 12. Which of the following has a medium to high formality rating and is used to resolve issues? a) project workbook b) minutes of meetings c) bulletin boards d) meetings 13. The shortest time in which a project can be completed best describes: a) slack b) critical path c) expected path d) optimistic path 14. Which of the following reflects the project manager's "best guess" of the amount of time an activity actually will require for completion? a) optimistic time b) pessimistic time c) realistic time d) logical time 15. If the optimistic time is 10, the pessimistic time is 25, and the realistic time is 16, the expected time would be: a) 51 b) 10 c) 25 d) 16.5
Chapter 6: Initiating and Planning Systems Development Projects 1. Which of the following is an activity that occurs during project initiation and planning? a) project structuring b) logical design c) project planning d) requirements determination 2. The justification for an information system, presented in terms of the tangible and intangible economic benefits and costs, and the technical and organizational feasibility of the proposed system best describes: a) business case b) justification walkthrough c) Baseline Project Plan d) Statement of Work 3. Feasibility factors include: a) political b) legal and contractual c) technical d) all of the above 4. Cost reduction and avoidance, error reduction, and increased speed of activity are examples of: a) intangible costs b) tangible costs c) tangible benefits d) intangible benefits 5. Faster decision making, information processing efficiency, and improved asset utilization are examples of: a) intangible costs b) tangible costs c) tangible benefits d) intangible benefits 6. Application software maintenance, incremental data storage expense, and incremental communications are examples of: a) intangible costs b) recurring costs c) tangible benefits d) one-time costs 7. The current value of a future cash flow best defines: a) future value b) return on investment c) break-even point d) present value 8. Assume the discount rate is 12 percent and you will receive $25,000 each year, beginning next year for the next three years; what is the approximate present value of these three payments? a) $50,152 b) $74,453 c) $69,180 d) $60,046 9. Assume that the NPV of all benefits is $275,000 and the NPV of all costs is $200,000; the overall ROI is: a) .50 b) .84 c) .375 d) .272 10. Assuming a yearly NPV cash flow of $20,000 and an overall NPV cash flow of $17,000, the break-even ratio is: a) .27 b) .10 c) .93 d) .15 11. The process of assessing the degree to which the potential time frame and completion dates for all major activities within a project meet organizational deadlines and constraints for affecting change best describes: a) political feasibility b) technical feasibility c) schedule feasibility d) timeline feasibility 12. Familiarity with the proposed application area is a risk factor associated with the: a) development group b) project size c) user group d) project structure 13. Which of the following criteria would address the ownership of software used in joint ventures? a) schedule feasibility b) operational feasibility c) legal and contractual feasibility d) technical feasibility 14. Which of the following Baseline Project Plan sections provides a brief description of alternative system configurations? a) Management Issues b) Feasibility Assessment c) Introduction d) System Description 15. Referencing walkthrough roles, this person describes the work product to the group: a) coordinator b) user c) maintenance oracle d) presenter
Chapter 7: Determining System Requirements 1. Which of the following is not a traditional method of collecting system requirements? a) interviewing b) RAD c) observations d) document analysis 2. Specifying that only people who satisfy certain criteria receive a questionnaire corresponds to a: a) purposeful sample b) convenient sample c) random sample d) stratified sample 3. When comparing questionnaires to interviews, questionnaires: a) are rated high in terms of information richness b) are rated high in terms of expense c) are limited in terms of chances for follow up d) have an active and involved subject 4. Which of the following has group members work alone to generate ideas, and then pools the ideas under the guidance of a trained facilitator? a) JAD b) RAD c) Nominal Group Technique d) analytical clustering 5. Which of the following is the official way a system works as described in organizational documentation? a) formal system b) primary system c) working system d) value system 6. In documents, you can find out about: a) problems with existing systems b) opportunities to meet new needs c) titles and names of key individuals who have an interest in relevant existing systems d) all of the above 7. When comparing observation to document analysis: a) observation is rated low in terms of information richness b) observation is rated as moderate in terms of time requirements c) the observee may or may not be involved and committed d) the observation may potentially involve large numbers of observes 8. During the analysis phase, which of the following has as its primary purpose the collection of system requirements simultaneously from the key people involved with the system? a) requirements structuring b) prototyping c) JAD d) business process reengineering 9. Referencing a JAD session, this person usually attends the sessions only at the very beginning or at the end: a) JAD session leader b) scribe c) manager d) sponsor 10. Prototyping is most useful for requirements determination when: a) there is a tendency to avoid creating formal documentation b) multiple stakeholders are involved in the system c) tools and data are not readily available to rapidly build systems d) user requirements are not well understood 11. According to Michael Hammer and James Champy, which of the following questions should be asked when analysts are trying to identify activities for radical change? a) Is the activity a primary activity? b) How does management feel about changes to the existing activity? c) How dysfunctional is the activity? d) Does the activity currently use disruptive technology? 12. The overall process by which current methods are replaced with radically new methods is referred to as: a) disruptive technology b) business process reengineering c) revolutionary design d) innovative application design 13. The structured, measured set of activities designed to produce a specific output for a particular customer or market best describes: a) key business processes b) value chain c) project scope d) candidate processes 14. Which of the following has disrupted the belief that the best contact with a potential buyer is personal contact? a) interactive communication technologies b) expert systems c) advanced telecommunications networks d) decision support tools 15. Which of the following has disrupted the belief that managers must make all the decisions? a) distributed databases b) expert systems c) advanced telecommunications networks d) decision support tools
Chapter 8: Structuring System Requirements: Process Modeling 1. Graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute data between a system and its environment and among components within a system best describes: a) logic modeling b) data modeling c) process modeling d) dynamic modeling 2. A picture of the movement of data between external entities and the processes and data stores within a system best describes a(n): a) data flow diagram b) decision table c) entity relationship diagram d) structure chart 3. Updating a customer's account to reflect a recent payment is represented on a data flow diagram as a: a) data flow b) process c) data store d) source 4. Which of the following is a data flow diagramming rule? a) A data flow has a verb phrase label. b) Data must be moved by a process if the data are of any concern to our system. c) A fork in a data flow means that exactly the same data comes from any of two or more different processes, data stores, or sources/sinks to a common location. d) A join in a data flow means that exactly the same data goes from a common location to two or more different processes, data stores, or sources/sinks. 5. Functional decomposition is: a) the process of discovering discrepancies between two or more sets of DFDs or discrepancies within a single DFD b) the extent to which all necessary components of a data flow diagram have been included and fully described c) the conservation of inputs and outputs to a data flow diagram process when that process is decomposed to a lower level d) an iterative process of breaking the description of a system down into finer and finer detail, which creates a set of charts in which one process on a given chart is explained in greater detail on another chart 6. Which of the following is an advanced rule governing data flow diagramming? a) A join in a data flow means that exactly the same data comes from any of two or more different processes, data stores, or sources/sinks to a common location. b) A fork in a data flow means that exactly the same data goes from a common location to two or more different processes, data stores, or sources/sinks. c) The inputs to a process must be sufficient to produce the outputs. d) Data cannot move directly from an outside source to a data store. 7. DFD completeness is: a) the process of discovering discrepancies between two or more sets of DFDs or discrepancies within a single DFD. b) the extent to which all necessary components of a data flow diagram have been included and fully described. c) the conservation of inputs and outputs to a data flow diagram process when that process is decomposed to a lower level. d) an iterative process of breaking the description of a system down into finer and finer detail, which creates a set of charts in which one process on a given chart is explained in greater detail on another chart. 8. A data flow that appears on a higher-level DFD but not on lower levels violates the DFD: a) consistency guideline b) timing guideline c) completeness guideline d) iterative development guideline 9. Which of the following is not indicated on a DFD? a) processing b) sources c) timing d) data storage 10. The lowest level of decomposition for a data flow diagram is a: a) primitive DFD b) unit DFD c) context DFD d) level-0 DFD 11. An analysis of DFDs can: a) identify data that are captured but are not used by the system b) identify data that are updated identically in more than one location c) reveal procedural redundancies d) do all of the above 12. Which of the following is not a process model? a) data flow diagram b) entity relationship diagram c) functional hierarchy diagram d) Oracle's process modeler 13. A functional hierarchy diagram is a: a) matrix representation of the logic of a decision, which specifies the possible conditions for the decision and the resulting actions b) picture of the movement of data between external entities and the processes and data stores within a system c) picture of the various tasks performed in a business and how they are related to each other d) detailed, logical representation of the entities, associations, and data elements for an organization or business area 14. Which of the following is a true statement about DFDs? a) DFDs do not provide detail of data in flow or in store b) DFDs can be animated with time parameters c) DFDs are most useful in the requirements structuring d) DFDs show ownership 15. Which of the following is a true statement about Oracle's process models? a) Oracle's process models do not show ownership b) Oracle's process models show attributes of flows and stores c) Oracle's process models do not show external triggers d) Oracle's process models do not support a numerical hierarchy
Chapter 9: Structuring System Requirements: Logic Modeling 1. Structured English: a) is a method for representing the instructions in a module with language very similar to computer programming code b) describes the movement of data between external entities and the processes and data stores within a system c) describes the entities, associations, and data elements for an organization or business area d) is a modified form of the English language used to specify the logic of information system processes 2. A decision table: a) models the state of an object and the events that cause the object to change from one state to another b) depicts the interactions among objects during a certain period of time c) is a matrix representation of the logic of a decision, which specifies the possible conditions for the decision and the resulting actions d) is a graphical representation of a decision situation in which decision situation points are connected together by arcs and terminate in ovals 3. Condition stubs: a) are the part of a decision table that lists the conditions relevant to the decision b) are the part of a decision table that lists the actions that result for the given set of conditions c) are the part of a decision table that specifies which actions are to be followed for the given set of rules d) specify the type of statements and entries that may be used in the table 4. Action stubs: a) are the part of a decision table that lists the conditions relevant to the decision b) are the part of a decision table that lists the actions that result for the given set of conditions c) are the part of a decision table that specifies which actions are to be followed for the given set of rules d) specify the type of statements and entries that may be used in the table 5. Rules: a) are the part of a decision table that lists the conditions relevant to the decision b) are the part of a decision table that lists the actions that result for the given set of conditions c) are the part of a decision table that specifies which actions are to be followed for the given set of rules d) specify the type of statements and entries that may be used in the table 6. Which of the following would be placed in the action stub section of a decision table? a) employee type b) hours worked c) prerequisite course d) generate receipt 7. Which of the following would be placed in the condition stub section of a decision table? a) item type b) place order c) pay base salary d) contact vendor 8. Assume condition one has four values, condition two has four values, and condition three has two values. How many rules are required? a) 3 b) 32 c) 10 d) 5 9. A condition whose value does not affect which actions are taken for two or more rules best describes a(n): a) relaxed condition b) extended condition c) indifferent condition d) insignificant condition 10. Which of the following is not a basic procedure for constructing decision tables? a) name the conditions and the values each condition can assume b) simplify the decision table c) name all possible actions that can occur d) remove all limited entries 11. Which of the following is a main component on a decision tree? a) entity b) process c) action d) condition 12. A decision tree: a) models the state of an object and the events that cause the object to change from one state to another b) depicts the interactions among objects during a certain period of time c) is a matrix representation of the logic of a decision, which specifies the possible conditions for the decision and the resulting actions d) is a graphical representation of a decision situation in which decision situation points are connected together by arcs and terminate in ovals 13. When deciding among Structured English, decision tables, and decision trees: a) decision trees were rated as the worst for determining conditions and actions b) decision trees were rated as the second best for determining conditions and actions c) decision trees were rated as the best for determining conditions and actions d) decision trees and Structured English were both rated as the best for determining conditions and actions 14. When deciding among Structured English, decision tables, and decision trees: a) Structured English was rated as the best technique for checking consistency and completeness b) Structured English and decision tables were rated as the best techniques for checking consistency and completeness c) Structured English was rated as the third best technique for checking consistency and completeness d) Structured English was rated as the second best technique for checking consistency and completeness 15. When deciding between decision tables and decision trees: a) decision trees are the best for portraying complex logic b) decision trees are the best for portraying simple problems c) decision trees are the worst for making decisions d) decision tables are the worst for manipulating
Chapter 10: Structuring System Requirements: Conceptual Data Modeling 1. A detailed model that shows the overall structure of organizational data while being independent of any database management system or other implementation considerations best describes: a) conceptual data model b) logical data model c) process model d) logic model 2. Database and file definitions are prepared during: a) initiation and planning b) design c) implementation d) analysis 3. Physical file and database design are associated with: a) initiation and planning b) design c) implementation d) analysis 4. Asking the question "What unique characteristic distinguishes each object from other objects of the same type?" helps an analyst identify: a) primary keys b) attributes and secondary keys c) relationships and their cardinalities and degrees d) integrity rules, minimum and maximum cardinality, and time dimensions of data 5. Asking the question, "Who is not permitted to use this data?" helps the analyst identify: a) security controls and understanding who really knows the meaning of data b) attributes and secondary keys c) relationships and their cardinalities and degrees d) integrity rules, minimum and maximum cardinality, and time dimensions of data 6. Which of the following is not an entity type? a) name b) store c) product d) work center 7. On an entity-relationship diagram, a relationship is represented by a(n): a) rectangle b) ellipse c) arrow d) diamond 8. A candidate key that has been selected as the unique, identifying characteristic for an entity type best describes a(n): a) data marker b) identifier c) associative entity d) primary attribute 9. Which of the following best exemplifies a candidate key? a) student first name b) ordered product c) course number d) email address 10. An employee managing another employee best exemplifies a: a) weak entity b) ternary relationship c) unary relationship d) binary relationship 11. The number of entity types that participate in a relationship describes: a) identifier b) degree c) join level d) structure level 12. A vendor, part, and warehouse have a: a) multivalued relationship b) unary relationship c) binary relationship d) ternary relationship 13. An entity type that associates the instances of one or more entity types and contains attributes that are peculiar to the relationship between those entity instances best describes a(n): a) multivalued attribute b) repeating group c) recursive relationship d) associative entity 14. Which of the following specifies that an entity instance of the supertype is allowed not to belong to any subtype? a) partial specialization rule b) total specialization rule c) disjoint rule d) overlap rule 15. Which of the following specifies that if an entity instance of the supertype is a member of one subtype, it cannot simultaneously be a member of any other subtype? a) partial specialization rule b) total specialization rule c) disjoint rule d) overlap rule
Chapter 12: Designing Databases 1. An attribute whose value is unique across all occurrences of a relation best describes a: a) primary key b) data marker c) recursive key d) join attribute 2. A relation that contains a minimum amount of redundancy and allows users to insert, modify, and delete the rows without errors or inconsistencies best describes a: a) denormalized relation b) well-structured relation c) sequentially organized relation d) physical file 3. If every nonprimary key attribute is functionally dependent on the whole primary key, then the relation is in at least: a) third normal form b) fifth normal form c) fourth normal form d) second normal form 4. If there are no functional dependencies between two (or more) nonprimary key attributes, this describes: a) second normal form b) fifth normal form c) fourth normal form d) third normal form 5. Which of the following E-R structures places the primary key of the entity on the one side of the relationship as a foreign key in the relation for the entity on the many side? a) regular entity b) binary or unary 1:1 relationship c) binary 1:N relationship d) binary or unary M:N relationship 6. The creation of a relation with the primary key associated with the relationship, plus any nonkey attributes of the relationship and the primary keys of the related entities is the relational representation associated with a: a) regular entity b) binary or unary 1:1 relationship c) binary 1:N relationship d) binary or unary M:N relationship 7. A coding scheme recognized by system software for representing organizational data best defines a: a) hashing algorithm b) data type c) hyperlink d) tuple 8. Which of the following is not an Oracle8i data type? a) BLOB b) DATE c) VARCHAR2 d) EXP7 9. A value a field will assume unless an explicit value is entered for that field best defines: a) default value b) assigned value c) replicated value d) normalized value 10. A special field value, distinct from 0, blank, or any other value, that indicates that the value for the field is missing or otherwise unknown best defines: a) BLOB value b) null value c) nonspecific value d) hashed value 11. The process of splitting or combining normalized relations into physical tables based on affinity of use of rows and fields best describes: a) denormalization b) intermediation c) transition d) hashing 12. Partitions are defined by nonoverlapping ranges of values for a specified attribute best describes: a) composite partitioning b) range partitioning c) hash partitioning d) transitive partitioning 13. A named set of table rows stored in a contiguous section of secondary memory best describes a(n): a) pointer b) entity c) relation d) physical file 14. When the rows are stored either sequentially or nonsequentially and a table is created that allows software to locate individual rows, this method is called: a) sequential file organization b) hashed file organization c) indexed file organization d) direct addressing 15. Each of the following is a true statement concerning hashed file organization except: a) concerning storage space, extra space may be needed to allow for addition and deletion of records b) sequential retrieval on the primary key is impractical c) the deletion of rows is not very easy d) random retrieval on the primary key is moderately fast
Chapter 13: Designing Forms and Reports 1. A form is a: a) business document that contains only predefined data; it is a passive document used solely for reading or viewing. b) document prepared for the customer that describes what the project will deliver and outlines generally at a high level all work required to complete the project. c) document that contains the best estimate of a project's scope, benefits, costs, risks, and resource requirements. d) business document that contains some predefined data and may include some areas where additional data are to be filled in. 2. A report is a: a) business document that contains only predefined data; it is a passive document used solely for reading or viewing. b) document prepared for the customer that describes what the project will deliver and outlines generally at a high level all work required to complete the project. c) document that contains the best estimate of a project's scope, benefits, costs, risks, and resource requirements. d) business document that contains some predefined data and may include some areas where additional data are to be filled in. 3. The major deliverable from the designing forms and reports stage is: a) design specifications b) dialogue sequence statements c) process models d) logic models 4. When preparing design specifications, the narrative overview section: a) provides a sample design of the form b) explains to those who will actually develop the final form why this form exists and how it will be used so that they can make the appropriate implementation decisions c) provides all testing and usability assessment information d) outlines a number of managerial concerns related to the project 5. Which of the following is a set of specifications for developing Web-like applications that run over wireless networks? a) WAP b) HTML c) VRML d) SAP 6. Each of the following is a valuable highlighting technique for conveying important information except: a) notifying users of errors in data entry or processing b) providing warnings to users regarding possible problems such as unusual data values or an unavailable device c) using several colors to emphasize the logical organization of information d) drawing attention to keywords, commands, high priority messages, and data that have changed or gone outside normal operating ranges 7. Methods of highlighting include: a) color differences b) size differences c) reverse video d) all of the above 8. When displaying text, you should do each of the following except: a) display text in mixed upper and lower case and use conventional punctuation b) use double spacing if space permits c) use abbreviations and acronyms only when they are widely understood by users and are significantly shorter than the full text d) hyphenate words between lines 9. Which of the following is not a problem from using color? a) Color fidelity may degrade on different displays b) Facilitates subtle discriminations in complex displays c) Printing or conversion to other media may not easily translate d) Resolution may degrade with different displays 10. When displaying tables and lists, which of the following is not a true statement? a) Information should be sorted in a meaningful order. b) You should use a single typeface, except for emphasis. c) You should place a blank row between every eight rows in long columns. d) You should avoid overly fanciful fonts. 11. When displaying tables and lists, which of the following is a true statement? a) Labels should appear only on the first page. b) Do not allow white space on printed reports. c) Right-justify textual data. d) Similar information displayed in multiple columns should be sorted vertically. 12. General guidelines for displaying tables and lists include: a) labels should be separated from other information by using highlighting b) place a blank line between every five rows in long columns c) use a single typeface, except for emphasis d) all of the above 13. When selecting tables versus graphs, you should use tables for: a) providing a quick summary of data b) detecting trends over time c) reading individual data values d) forecasting activities 14. Which of the following is not a usability characteristic? a) speed b) accuracy c) satisfaction d) reliability 15. The use of small simple images to allow a Web page to more quickly be displayed best describes: a) Web icons b) VRML c) lightweight graphics d) intelligent agents
Chapter 14: Designing Interfaces and Dialogues 1. In terms of speed, which of the following input devices has potentially high usability problems? a) mouse b) trackball c) graphics tablet d) keyboard 2. In terms of movement scaling, which of the following has little or no usability problems? a) mouse b) joystick c) touch screen d) keyboard 3. When making a menu selection, which of the following is true? a) A light pen requires the shortest positioning. b) A mouse requires the shortest positioning. c) A trackball requires the shortest positioning. d) Research could determine no clear conclusion. 4. When designing the navigation procedures within your system, which of the following are your primary concerns? a) flexibility and consistency b) accuracy and reliability c) stability and efficiency d) accuracy and consistency 5. The type of data error where additional characters are added to a field is called: a) transposing b) hashing c) appending d) transcripting 6. The type of data error where characters are lost from a field is called: a) truncating b) hashing c) appending d) transcripting 7. The validation test where an extra digit is added to a numeric field in which its value is derived using a standard formula is a: a) reasonableness test b) range test c) size test d) self-checking digits test 8. The validation test that tests for the existence of data items in all fields of a record is called a: a) missing data test b) range test c) size test d) self-checking digits test 9. Which of the following is a record of the sequence of data entries and the date of those entries? a) transcript log b) audit trail c) activity log d) data tracking log 10. Which of the following is not a type of system feedback? a) status information b) problem analysis c) prompting cues d) error or warning messages 11. "Please wait while I save the file" is: a) status information b) a processing command c) a prompting cue d) an error or warning message 12. Which of the following is not a guideline for the design of human-computer dialogue? a) modality b) consistency c) closure d) ease 13. Which of the following is a formal method of designing and representing human-computer dialogues using box and line diagrams? a) logic modeling b) process modeling c) sequence modeling d) dialogue diagramming 14. Which of the following is a common error when designing the interface and dialogues of Websites? a) complex URLs b) opening new browser window c) orphan pages d) all of the above 15. Allowing users to navigate to a point previously visited and assuring that they are not lost is the purpose of: a) template-based HTML b) lightweight graphics c) data markers d) cookie crumbs
Chapter 15: Finalizing Design Specifications 1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of quality requirement statements? a) correct b) necessary c) traceable d) unambiguous 2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of quality requirements? a) complete b) consistent c) modifiable d) prioritized 3. The contents of a design specification document would include: a) an overall system description b) system features c) interface requirements d) all of the above 4. A hierarchical diagram that shows how an information system is organized best describes: a) structure chart b) decision tree c) activity diagram d) sequence diagram 5. A self-contained component of a system, defined by function best describes: a) state b) procedure c) module d) entity 6. Which of the following is a correct statement? a) Modules are called in order from right to left. b) Modules at the lowest levels call other modules. c) Generally, a computer program is represented by one module. d) Modules that report to the coordinating module may call additional modules in the next row down. 7. A diagrammatic representation of the data exchanged between two modules in a structure chart best describes a: a) flag b) data couple c) data flow d) relationship 8. A diagrammatic representation of a message passed between two modules best describes a: a) flag b) data couple c) data flow d) conversation 9. On a structure chart, predefined modules are represented by: a) drawing a vertical bar down each side of the module b) a diamond placed at the bottom of the superior module c) a curved line drawn through the arrows connecting the module to its subordinates d) placing an 'X' in the lower right corner of the predefined module 10. A method for representing the instructions in a module with language very similar to computer programming code best describes: a) Structured English b) pseudocode c) XML d) UML 11. A prototype that serves as the basis for the production system itself best describes: a) evolutionary prototype b) system prototype c) reusable prototype d) leveraged prototype 12. A prototype that is used as a reference for the new system and then is discarded best describes: a) throwaway prototype b) evolutionary prototype c) leveraged prototype d) system prototype 13. Which of the following is not a phase in the Iteration Planning Game? a) steering b) planning c) commitment d) exploration 14. Referencing the Iteration Planning Game, when will programmers accept responsibility for tasks and balance their workloads? a) steering b) planning c) commitment d) exploration 15. Which of the following is a Rapid Application Development phase? a) initiation b) analysis c) construction d) testing
Chapter 16: Designing Distributed and Internet Systems 1. The backend portion of the client/server database system running on the server and providing database processing and shared access functions best describes: a) client engine b) database engine c) knowledge engine d) intelligent engine 2. Software building blocks that are used to assure that common system capabilities like user interfaces and printing are standardized as well as modules for facilitating the data exchange between clients and servers best describes: a) application program interface b) extensible style language c) cascading style sheets d) BIND 3. Which of the following is a true statement about the differences between file server and client/server architectures? a) Processing is only performed on the client in a file server architecture; processing is performed on both the client and server in a client/server architecture b) In a file server architecture, software maintenance changes occur just on the server; in a client/server environment some new parts must be delivered to the each client c) In a file server architecture, database security and integrity are managed by each client; in a client/server architecture, database security and integrity are managed by the server. d) All of the above are true statements. 4. A combination of hardware, software, and communication technologies that bring together data management, presentation, and analysis into a three-tiered client/server environment best describes: a) BIND b) firmware c) middleware d) logic software 5. A computing server where data analysis functions primarily reside best describes: a) cascading server b) analysis server c) file server d) application server 6. The remote data management approach to designing client/server architectures: a) freshens up the delivery of existing server-based applications to distributed clients. b) places all software on the client except for the data management functions. c) places all functionality on the client, except data storage and management which is divided between client and server. d) splits analysis functions between the client and server, leaving all presentation on the client and all data management on the server. 7. The distributed function approach to designing client/server architectures: a) freshens up the delivery of existing server-based applications to distributed clients. b) places all software on the client except for the data management functions. c) places all functionality on the client, except data storage and management which is divided between client and server. d) splits analysis functions between the client and server, leaving all presentation on the client and all data management on the server. 8. An Internet authoring language that allows designers to create customized tags, enabling the definition, transmission, validation, and interpretation of data between applications best describes: a) HTTP b) XSL c) XML d) HTML 9. A client device designed so that most processing and data storage occurs on the server best describes: a) thin client b) fat client c) application client d) passive client 10. A specification for separating style from content when generating HTML documents best describes: a) HTTP b) XSL c) XML d) HTML 11. Which of the following is an XML-based markup language that was designed specifically to describe how WAP content is presented on a wireless terminal? a) XSL b) PTML c) WXML d) WML 12. The use of graphical software tools that provide complex analysis of data stored in a database best describes: a) on-line analytical processing b) batch processing c) on-line transaction processing d) decision support processing 13. Systems designed to support decision making based on stable point-in-time or historical data best describes: a) operational systems b) informational systems c) expert systems d) contemporary systems 14. Which of the following is a true statement? a) The operational system's design goal is performance. b) The operational system has a broad usage scope. c) The primary users of operational systems are managers, business analysts, and customers. d) The primary purpose of operational systems is to support managerial decision making. 15. Which of the following is not a component of a three-level data warehouse architecture? a) operational systems and data b) enterprise data warehouse c) customers d) data marts
Chapter 17: System Implementation 1. Which of the following is not a dynamic and automated type of testing? a) syntax checking b) unit test c) system test d) integration test 2. Which of the following is a testing technique in which the program code is sequentially executed manually by the reviewer? a) syntax checking b) integration test c) desk checking d) manual review 3. Testing each module alone in an attempt to discover any errors in its code best describes: a) module testing b) integration testing c) unit testing d) function testing 4. A technique used in testing modules, especially where modules are written and tested in a top-down fashion, where a few lines of code are used to substitute for subordinate modules, best describes: a) unit testing b) stub testing c) structured programming d) structured design 5. The process whereby actual users test a completed information system, the end result of which is the users' acceptance of it best describes: a) integration testing b) end user testing c) requirements testing d) acceptance testing 6. User testing of a completed information system using real data in the real user environment best describes: a) beta testing b) alpha testing c) end user testing d) requirements testing 7. Changing over from the old information system to a new one by turning off the old system when the new one is turned on best describes: a) phased installation b) direct installation c) forced installation d) intensive installation 8. Which of the following is the least expensive installation method? a) phase b) parallel c) direct d) single location 9. Trying out a new information system at one site and using the experience to decide if and how the new system should be deployed throughout the organization best describes: a) phase b) direct c) single location d) parallel 10. Written or other visual information about an application system, how it works, and how to use it best describes: a) internal documentation b) system documentation c) project repository d) user documentation 11. All the resources and practices required to help people adequately use computer systems to do their primary work best describes: a) information center b) computing infrastructure c) extranet d) network architecture 12. A component of a software package or application in which training and educational information is embedded best describes: a) intelligent agent b) electronic performance support system c) knowledge agent d) information center 13. A single point of contact for all user inquiries and problems about a particular information system or for all users in a particular department best describes a(n): a) information center b) help desk c) point of reference d) electronic performance support system 14. Which of the following is important to a successful implementation process? a) commitment to the project b) commitment to change c) extent of project definition and planning d) all of the above 15. Lucas identified each of the following factors as influencing the extent to which a system is used except: a) system characteristics b) user demographics c) performance d) technology
Chapter 18: Maintaining Information Systems 1. Which of the following is not a major maintenance activity? a) update the baseline project plan b) obtain maintenance requests c) transform requests into changes d) implement changes 2. Changes made to a system to repair flaws in its design, coding, or implementation best describes: a) corrective maintenance b) adaptive maintenance c) perfective maintenance d) preventive maintenance 3. Changes made to a system to evolve its functionality to changing business needs or technologies best describes: a) corrective maintenance b) adaptive maintenance c) perfective maintenance d) preventive maintenance 4. Changes made to a system to add new features or to improve performance best describes: a) corrective maintenance b) adaptive maintenance c) perfective maintenance d) preventive maintenance 5. Which of the following influences most of the costs associated with maintaining a system? a) number of customers for a given system b) quality of system documentation c) maintenance personnel d) latent defects 6. The ease with which software can be understood, corrected, adapted, and enhanced best describes: a) perfective maintenance b) preventive maintenance c) configuration management d) maintainability 7. A disadvantage of the separate maintenance organizational structure is that: a) personnel may have limited job mobility and lack access to adequate human and technical resources b) different platforms, priorities, and budgets cause problems between the groups c) all things cannot be documented, so the maintenance group may not know critical information about the system d) documentation and testing thoroughness may suffer due to a lack of a formal transfer of responsibility 8. A disadvantage of the combined maintenance organizational structure is that: a) personnel may have limited job mobility and lack access to adequate human and technical resources b) different platforms, priorities, and budgets cause problems between the groups c) all things cannot be documented, so the maintenance group may not know critical information about the system d) documentation and testing thoroughness may suffer due to a lack of a formal transfer of responsibility 9. A disadvantage of the functional maintenance organizational structure is that: a) personnel may have limited job mobility and lack access to adequate human and technical resources b) different platforms, priorities, and budgets cause problems between the groups c) all things cannot be documented, so the maintenance group may not know critical information about the system d) documentation and testing thoroughness may suffer due to a lack of a formal transfer of responsibility 10. Which of the following is not a measure of maintenance effectiveness? a) number of failures b) time between each failure c) failure scope d) type of failure 11. A measurement of error occurrences that can be tracked over time to indicate the quality of a system best describes: a) success ratio b) failure probability c) failure ratio d) mean time between failures 12. The process of assuring that only authorized changes are made to a system best describes: a) configuration management b) maintenance c) maintainability d) systems modification management 13. Guidelines that list the instructions to construct an executable system from the baseline source code best describes: a) build routines b) baseline modules c) program statements d) development code 14. Software modules that have been tested, documented, and approved to be included in the most recently created version of a system are: a) baseline modules b) approved code modules c) alpha modules d) beta modules 15. When maintaining a Website, which of the following are issues and procedures to consider? a) check for broken links b) HTML validation c) re-registration d) all of the above
Chapter 20: Object-Oriented Analysis and Design 1. Which of the following techniques and notations would you find within UML? a) use cases b) class diagrams c) state diagrams d) all of the above 2. Which of the following extends a use case by adding new behaviors or actions? a) an extend relationship b) an include relationship c) a join relationship d) a merge relationship 3. A condition that encompasses an object's properties and the values those properties have best describes: a) event b) state c) behavior d) action 4. The technique of hiding the internal implementation details of an object from its external view best describes: a) incorporation b) polymorphism c) encapsulation d) generalization 5. Which of the following is the multiplicity notation that represents optional many? a) 0..X b) 1..X c) 1..1 d) 0..* 6. When subclasses are generalized, the class they are generalized into is called a(n): a) superclass b) extended class c) abstract class d) concrete class 7. On a class diagram, the basis of a generalization is specified by a(n): a) extends relationship b) discriminator c) event d) message 8. The process of replacing a method inherited from a superclass by a more specific implementation of that method in a subclass best describes: a) inheritance b) instance restriction c) encapsulation d) overriding 9. When an object is an instance of more than one class, this is called: a) aggregation b) expansion c) multiple classification d) a repeating group 10. A part-of relationship between a component object and an aggregate object best describes a(n): a) composition b) extension c) aggregation d) state 11. How is composition represented on a class diagram? a) a circle b) a rounded rectangle c) an ellipse d) a solid diamond 12. Changes in the attributes of an object or links an object has with other objects best describes: a) event b) state activity c) state transition d) state transformation 13. Which of the following is shown within square brackets on a state diagram? a) a state b) an event c) an actor d) a guard condition 14. A depiction of the interactions among objects during a certain period of time best describes a: a) sequence diagram b) composition diagram c) deployment diagram d) class diagram 15. A message that transfers control from the sender to the recipient without describing the details of the communication best describes: a) synchronous message b) simple message c) asynchronous message d) flag